I remember an article outlining that, at least in big cities, there are disproportionately more single men than single women (and that then swings to more single women when people get older).
It seems a mathematical riddle to me: if at birth there are (more or less) the same amount of men to women, how is it possible that there are many more single men in the younger age brackets (and most age brackets overall)?
Yeah, I guess older men tend to get a bit more younger women, but the impact of that should be very limited.. ?
How is it mathematically explained?
It seems a mathematical riddle to me: if at birth there are (more or less) the same amount of men to women, how is it possible that there are many more single men in the younger age brackets (and most age brackets overall)?
Yeah, I guess older men tend to get a bit more younger women, but the impact of that should be very limited.. ?
How is it mathematically explained?